We must now think not only why the Lord Jesus Christ is the substance of the promises, through whom God’s righteousness was to be declared, but the way Scripture reveals how this was achieved. These promises, we know, had reference to Jesus Christ, who was to be raised up in the condemned line of Abraham and David.

The adoption by man in the beginning of the serpent’s false reasoning in effect accused God of lying. This act cast down, falsely accused and dishonored God and His truth. Man, as he had been warned, was rightly sentenced to death. If man was to be redeemed from this position, a method of redemption had to be established which did not set aside God’s just and necessary law of sin and death. Of necessity, this method of redemption needed to reverse what had so dishonored God, and vindicate (i.e. to uphold so that none could say God was unjust) His holiness and righteousness. God’s righteousness had to be declared in such a way that man might acknowledge God’s just principle as set forth at the beginning -­­ that sin had to be condemned, and that by faith he would see that God, in upholding His righteousness is the justifier of those who believe in what God accomplished in Jesus (Romans 3:25-26). It was the mission of Christ to do this by first honoring God by the obedience of faith – do perfectly under intense trial what Adam failed to do. A work accomplished in himself, which not only reversed all that had so dishonored God at the beginning, but of divine necessity, sacrificially condemned sin in the very nature that had been defiled in Eden as a consequence of sin - the nature which ever since the fall in Eden has been the source of all rebellion against God’s law.

The declaration of God’s righteousness therefore required Jesus to be a representative of those he came to save - wearing the same condemned nature we all inherit from Adam and therefore the same need of redemption from it. Jesus, though born in this same condemned sinful nature, was to obtain a title to resurrection by perfect obedience to God, and by dying, abolished the law of condemnation (i.e. the sentence of death Romans 5:12) for himself, in order that it might be abolished in all who should believe and obey him. The perfect obedience of Christ was therefore not sufficient on its own to declare God’s righteousness, nor was his sacrifice merely the crowning act of a life of obedience. In fact his perfect obedience had to culminate, by divine command, in his submission to the death of the cross. His submission to the death on the cross was the means by which God’s righteousness was upheld, and sin publicly condemned. The Lord Jesus as our representative was the first to be redeemed by his own sacrificial death and resurrection. He, as the fore runner of the redeemed, was physically cleansed from the defilement of “sin in the flesh” at his glorification to spirit nature. By his life of perfect obedience, even to the death of the cross, he received the right from God to bestow the same blessing on all who should in faith and obedience, come to God through him. (1 Corinthians 15:45; Hebrews 2:14-16; Romans 5:18; 1 Corinthians 1:30; Romans 3:23-26; Romans 8:3; Hebrews 9:12, 22-28; Statement of the Faith Nos. 8 & 9 pg. 127).

33. How can men who are sinners lay hold on the righteousness of God in Christ?

God calls on men and women to repent, and offers to forgive their sins if they believe in Jesus and put on his name. (Acts 17:30, 13:38; Isaiah 55:7 Acts 2:38; Acts 4:12)

How do we enter into Christ?

We enter into the Lord Jesus Christ by being born of water and of the Spirit. By God’s word we are mentally and morally changed. This change is imputed to us for righteousness when we put on Christ’s name at baptism. (John 3:5-8; Romans 4:3, 21-25, 12:2)

34. Are we saved by faith in Christ alone?

No. Faith justifies from all past sins, and ensures peace with God, but works are required to retain God’s favour and secure acceptance at the last. (Romans 5:1; 1 Corinthians 10:12; Romans 8:13; 2 Peter 2:20; James 2:24; Revelation 2:5 & 23).

Now if that is the case, the churches teach a whole series of doctrines that directly contradict this truth.

35. We know that Jesus Christ is the son of God but is he God the son?

No. Such an idea stems from the false doctrine of the trinity widely proclaimed in the third and fourth centuries. It has no place in apostolic teaching.

Did the Lord Jesus pre-exist before his miraculous birth that was the result of the Holy Spirit coming upon Mary?

He existed only in the mind, plan and purpose of Yahweh and this is the reason why in the opening chapter of the gospel of John he is described as “the word made flesh” (Proverbs 8:12-31; Revelation 13:9; John 1:1, 14).

Was He immortal before he was raised from the dead and “ascended to the father” (John 20:17)?

No. This is the false doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church. Scriptures state, “How can he be clean who is born of a woman?” And that “God made Christ to be sin (i.e. sinful flesh or flesh and blood) for us, who knew no sin.” (Elpis Israel ‘The Constitution of Sin’ pg. 134; Job 25:4, 14:4; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Romans 8:3; Hebrews 10:10-14; John 3:6-7)

What was Jesus Christ’s mission?

He came to save his people from their sins. Jesus means saviour. (Matthew 1:21)

Bro. Roberts states simply in “The Blood of Christ,” “He was born that he might die, as the first necessity in the case; for thus was the righteousness of God to be declared, and sin condemned in its own flesh, as the foundation of all the goodness to come afterwards.” (section ‘Very Simple, Very Reasonable’ pg. 7 Logos ed). We know Jesus Christ was the Son of man as well as Son of God, made in all things like unto ourselves, yet without sin, (Acts 2:22; 1 Timothy 2:5; Hebrews 2:14-17) that his mother Mary was a descendant of David, (Matthew 1:20; Luke 1:35)

Was Mary immaculate (completely clean, pure, flawless) as the Roman Catholic Church teaches?

No. That blasphemous doctrine is a part of Mariolatry. Her immaculate nature was proclaimed in the late 1800’s and has no place in apostolic teaching.

36. Can you then explain, so that it is clear, how Jesus Christ was both man and the Son of God?

He was begotten of a human virgin mother by the power of the Spirit of God and not by a human father. He was therefore divine in origin, in character and education. Mary, the Lord’s mother, descended from David and was betrothed to Joseph who was also a descendant of David. On his mother’s side, Jesus was the Son of David, and therefore a man partaking of David’s nature, which is the nature common to all, a body of death requiring redemption. From his mother’s side he therefore derived both the tendencies that lead to sin and the sentence of death that came upon man at the beginning because of sin and was passed on to all Adam’s descendants including Christ. (Matthew 1:1; Galatians 4:4; Luke 1:35; Romans 8:23 & 7:24; Hebrews 9:12)

What are the consequences of this great truth?

This was the way God designed Christ to be the “sin bearer”, that is, the means by which “he bore our sins in his body on the tree.” (1Peter 2:24)

Bro. Roberts in “The Blood of Christ” shows us, “The object was to open a way out of this state, both for himself and his brethren, by death and resurrection after trial. It pleased God to require the ceremonial (i.e. it was formal, public and literal) condemnation of this sin-nature in crucifixion in the person of a righteous possessor of it, in a body under the dominion of death because of sin. It was that nature that was to be operated upon and redeemed in him, as the basis of our forgiveness”. (Subsection ‘Sin in the Flesh’ pg. 14 Logos ed)

You believe then that there was a time when death did have dominion over Jesus?

Yes. (Romans 6:9)

37. What does Christ mean?

Anointed. (Acts 4:27; Psalm 2:2)

What is anointing?

It is the ceremony by which kings and priests were by divine appointment consecrated to their office. It consisted of putting holy oil on their heads. (Exodus 29:7-9; 1 Samuel 16:1-3)

How and when was Jesus anointed?

He was anointed with the Holy spirit as he came out of the waters of baptism in the Jordan. (Luke 3:21-22) 

Is the Lord Jesus referred to by any other names in the Bible?

Yes. Emmanuel (Isaiah 7:14) - God (Hebrew - Ail - Power) with us.

38. If that is the case, do you believe Jesus is co-equal and co-eternal with the Father as the Trinitarians teach?

No. The man Christ Jesus, begotten of the Father and endowed immeasurably with God’s spirit was distinct from the Father. Jesus was one with God mentally and morally. Christ was the perfect manifestation of the Father’s character in the flesh. His flesh was the same defiled (contaminated) nature, subject to death, as the race he came to save. The scriptures tell us God only has immortality underived. Christ disowned co-equality with the Father and the scriptures show co-eternity is impossible in a son. (John 8:18, 14:11 & 28; 1 Timothy 3:16; 1 Corinthians 11:3 & 15:28)

We must now carefully consider the importance of the fact that Jesus is both divine and human with respect to his mission. The very reason for his coming into existence was to save men from their sins in order that God’s Name might be glorified. To do so, as previously mentioned, Yahweh’s plan necessitated the miraculous birth of Christ from a human mother enabling him to bear our condemnation, but divine in the source from which he derived his perfect character. This strengthened him to be able to be a sinless bearer of our defiled nature, so that after suffering the sacrificial death required to declare the righteousness of God, he could be righteously raised from the dead. By his perfect life of obedience, sacrificial death and resurrection, God could extend forgiveness to us on the basis of what was accomplished in Christ without setting aside his principles of righteousness and holiness. (Luke 1:68-73; 2:30-32; Hebrews 2:14-17; Galatians 4:4; John 1:14; 1 Timothy 3:16; Romans 3:25; Statement of the Faith Nos. 9 & 10, pg. 127).

39. When did Jesus’ public mission begin?

At his baptism. (Acts 1:22)

Why was Christ baptized?

Jesus said it was proper “for us (referring to John the Baptist and Himself) to fulfill all righteousness.” (Matthew 3:15)

What does Jesus mean when he said, “for us to fulfill all righteousness?”

The Lord’s words were in response to John’s confession on hearing Christ’s request to be baptized, that he (John) himself needed to be baptized of the Lord Jesus. The master’s words indicate he also had a need to be baptized and this need arises from the fact that for God’s righteousness to be declared in the great sacrificial work God had given him to do, he had to be a true representative (one in need of the same thing) of those he came to redeem.

Bro. Roberts says in fact “there was a necessity. The work he had come to do was first of all a work of obedience in himself.” (Nazareth Revisited pg. 84). Bro. Roberts states in the Law of Moses “Christ’s work was therefore to establish salvation by forgiveness, but forgiveness on conditions, and these conditions involved the declaration of the Father’s righteousness in the public condemnation of sin in its own flesh in the person of a guiltless possessor of that flesh” (Law of Moses, pg. 176). The Lord Jesus’ obedience to baptism (a ritual act appointed by God symbolizing the putting away of sin) pointed forward to his sacrificial death. The Lords deliberate identification with John’s expression of need to be baptized “for us to fulfill all righteousness” shows us in the words of bro. Roberts “that Christ himself was included in the sacrificial work he did ‘for us.’ ‘For himself that it might be for us,’ for how otherwise could we have obtained redemption if it had not first come into his possession, for us to become joint heirs of?” (Law of Moses, 177)

Do you believe the Law of Moses was a part of that ‘all righteousness’ the Lord said he had come to fulfill?

 Paul said “the law is holy and the commandment is holy and righteous and good” (Romans 7:12 ESV). The Lord Jesus said with respect to the law and the prophets, “I have not come to abolish them, but to fulfill them…not a iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished” (Matt 5:17-18 ESV) The law was a representation of God’s righteousness (Romans 3:21), the reality was set forth in the life of perfect obedience, sacrificial condemnation of sin and resurrection of Christ.

Was the Law then a figure or shadow and prophecy of how God would save men from their sins by the sacrifice of Christ?

Yes. I believe Paul says so in Col. 2:17, and in Hebrews. (Chapters 8:5 and 10:1)

40. The baptism of John, as you know, was a “baptism of repentance for the remission of sins” (Mark 1:4). As Jesus had not sinned and therefore, had no need of repentance, what did his baptism represent?

I believe Christ, though not a transgressor of God’s law, came as the sin-bearer (Isaiah 53:5-6). By being “born of a woman, born under the law” (Galatians 4:4), God made him flesh and blood under the physical law of sin and death, by which means he bore our condemnation, so that he might take it away by his death (1 Peter 2:24).

What covenant did Christ’s sacrificial death confirm (or bring into force)?

The Abrahamic Covenant was confirmed (Romans 15:8), by which blood he himself, as our representative, was first redeemed and cleansed from the nature we all inherit. This established the basis upon which God could extend His mercy to us without violating His principles of righteousness.

It is very important to hear those being examined say this great Truth. So as the sin-bearer, do you believe God laid all the sins of those who were to be saved upon him by Jesus being made of the same “sinful flesh” as the human race?

Yes, because the root of all our problems come from the nature we bear. Christ’s teachings (Matthew 5-7) always went to the root of man’s problem – “sin in the flesh”, and it was that root that he came to destroy in himself. (Isaiah 53:12; 1 Peter 2:24; 2 Corinthians 5:21)

You say that Christ’s mission was to save men from their sins. What was the subject of his teaching to the Jewish race?

He called His people, the Jews, to repentance from every evil work. He set forth infallible proof by the miracles he performed of His divine sonship and Jewish kingship. He proclaimed the glad tidings that God would restore the Kingdom of Israel through him and accomplish all things written in the prophets (Mark 1:15; Matthew 4:17, 5:20-48; John 1:49; Matthew 19:28; Luke 4:43 & 24:44; Statement of the Faith No. 11, pg. 127)

What was the result of Christ delivering this message and exhibition of God’s power?

He was put to death by the Jews and Romans (who were but instruments in the hand of God) to accomplish what God determined had to be done, as revealed through His prophets. (Acts 2:22-23, 3:13-18 & 4:10-12). 


41. We have spoken of the way God saves men from their sins by Jesus Christ. In what way then does God turn men from their sins?

Yahweh in giving His Son as a sacrifice for sin exhibited His inexpressible love. It is by this love when deeply appreciated, and by the power of Christ’s teachings and example that God will turn men away from their sins and lead them to righteousness. (John 3:16-18; Romans 5:6-8; Acts 3:26; 1 Peter 2:21-25).

42. We have spoken of how God forgives for Christ’s sake because of what was accomplished in his sacrificial death. We would like you to sum up what was accomplished in the death of Christ. Also can you mention two most important passages that should always be linked in answering this question?

The condemnation of sin in the flesh (Romans 8:3) through the offering of the body of Jesus once for all (Hebrews 10:10) as a propitiation or covering for sin through faith in his blood, to declare the righteousness of God as a basis for the remission of sins, that is Romans 8:3 and Romans 3:25-26. (Statement of the Faith No.12, pg. 127). 


In those few words quoted from the Statement of the Faith No. 12, you have stated the very essence of God’s plan of redemption. You said “the condemnation of sin in the flesh, through the offering of the body of Jesus.” We note that Clause 12 does not say “the condemnation of sin in the flesh, through a life of perfect obedience” but “through the offering of the body of Jesus once for all”. God’s plan of salvation rested on Jesus’ redemption from Adamic nature by a perfect obedience which had to culminate in the condemnation of sin’s flesh by his sacrificial death. There are those who insist that the phrase “condemned sin in the flesh” was fulfilled by the moral condemnation of sin during Christ’s life. Bro. Roberts says “this cannot be the meaning in view of the statement with which it is conjoined that what was done was ‘what the law could not do.’ (Romans 8:3). The law condemned sin so thoroughly in the moral sense that it is called ‘the ministration of condemnation’ (2 Corinthians 3:9)…Christ was sent ‘in the likeness of sinful flesh’ for the accomplishment of the work in question – the condemnation of sin in the flesh. This is, in fact, the reliable clue to the meaning. That he was sent in the likeness of sinful flesh (which Paul in Hebrews 2:14 says is sameness) for the accomplishment of the work shows that it was a work to be done in him.” (Law of Moses pg. 174).

The diabolos destroyed (Hebrews 2:14), sin in the flesh condemned (Romans 8:3) was physical because the flesh and blood body of Christ was accounted as “sin,” “For he (God) made him (Jesus) sin for us, who knew no sin (transgression)…” (2 Corinthians 5:21)

Bro. Thomas states, “Sin is a word in Paul’s argument (in Romans 7), which stands for ‘human nature,’ with its affections and desires. Hence, to become sin, or for one to be ‘made sin’ for others, (2 Corinthians 5:21) is to become flesh and blood. This is called ‘sin,’ or ‘Sin’s flesh,’ because it is what it is in consequence of sin, or transgression.” (Eureka Vol. 1 pg. 247).  

In your statement you linked as Bro. Thomas and Roberts, Romans 8:3 and Romans 3:25-26. They always linked those passages because they understood that the declaration of God’s righteousness was the condemnation of sin in the flesh of Christ. Bro. Roberts states “There is no difference between the shedding of the blood of Christ and the condemnation of sin in the flesh...for what is death but the condemnation of sin….This sacrificial condemnation of sin is otherwise said ‘to declare the righteousness of God for the remission of sins that are past through the forbearance of God’ (Romans 3:25)…No view can be right that cannot be brought within the terms of that definition. It is in fact, the final easement of all difficulty where the mind is able to rise to the divine point of view involved in the statement. The crucifixion was a divine declaration and enforcement of what is due to sin, and as it was God’s righteous appointment that this should be due to sin, the infliction of it was a declaration of God’s righteousness...for others to recognize, that they might be forgiven.” (Law of Moses pg. 175-177).

 The crucifixion as a divine declaration and enforcement of what is due to sin was a command from God, (John 10:18) that Christ himself should in faith submit, to which the garden of Gethsemane bears witness (Mark14:32-36). God had determined His righteousness could be declared in no other way as the basis of the remission of sins through His forbearance (Romans 3:25-26). The only way therefore that God can be recognized as righteous and “just” (Romans 3:26), which was the very purpose of this public declaration, is if there was sin in the body of Jesus that had to be destroyed. His body was accounted as ‘sin’ and treated as ‘sin’ as a public repudiation of sinful nature as the basis of divine fellowship and acceptability.

Could not sin have been condemned in its own flesh by the crucifixion of any sinner?

No, for as “by one man sin entered the world and death by sin” (Romans 5:12), even so eternal life was to come through one “who knew no sin so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Bro. Roberts gives the reason in The Blood of Christ; that “not only had sin to be condemned, but resurrection had to come in harmony with the law that made death the wages of sin.” (The Blood of Christ, ‘Very Simple, very Reasonable’ pg. 7 Logos ed). That is a glorious truth and this provided us with one who should be a mediator between God and man who is the dispenser of forgiveness and salvation as well as our righteous judge.

Would you now please explain how sin could be condemned in Christ who was sinless, and how could the righteousness of God be declared in the blood shedding of a righteous man?

Being born of Adam’s condemned race and partaking of their condemned nature, Christ was equally subject to the consequences of Adam’s transgression. Therefore, his public execution was a public demonstration of the righteous treatment of sin. It proclaimed how condemned human nature should be treated according to the righteousness of God; it is fit only for destruction. It pleased God to require this before inviting men to be reconciled to God through the man in whom this upholding of God’s righteousness should take place. (Hebrews 2:14 & 9:26; Romans 1:3 & 6:9-10; the Christadelphian Instructor No.55 & Blood of Christ ‘The Place of Forgiveness’, pg. 10 & 11 Logos ed.). Bro. Thomas says “Sin could not have been condemned in the body of Jesus, if it had not existed there.” (Elpis Israel Part 1, chapter 4 “The Constitution of Sin” pg. 128).

Bro. Roberts states “Christ could not righteously die if death had no dominion over him (Romans 6:9) and it could not have this dominion except through Adam, through Abraham, David and his mother, for he had no sin of his own...In this very real sense, our sins are considered as being laid on him and the beginning was made by making him of the same death – inheriting nature from Eden…God’s plan of righteousness…required that the sufferer, while himself in the channel of death so far as nature was concerned, should himself not be a sinner, that he should be the Lamb of God, without spot, undefiled….The man produced through Mary by the Spirit of God combined the two essential qualities for a sacrifice; he was the very nature condemned in Eden and therefore wrong was not done when he was impaled upon the cross. ‘It pleased the Lord to bruise him.’ Would it please the Lord to do iniquity? No: therefore it was right. But how could it be right, unless he were the very condemned stock?” (Blood of Christ pg. 8-9 Logos ed.). “This is why it was necessary that Jesus should be ‘made of the seed of David according to the flesh’ (Romans 1:3), that he might partake of the very flesh and blood of man (Hebrews 2:14). It was that nature that was to be operated upon and redeemed in him.” (Blood of Christ section ‘The Place of Forgiveness’ pg. 11 Logos ed.)

43. Was Christ Himself saved in the redemption he wrought out for us?

Yes. Christ benefited from his own death. “By his own blood he entered once into the Holy Place, having obtained eternal redemption,” for himself, as the Greek verb implies. It was therefore necessary that Jesus should offer for himself for the purging of his own nature first, from the uncleanness of death, that having by his own blood obtained eternal redemption in himself, he might be able to save to the uttermost those that come to God by him (Hebrews 9:12; 9:23 & 13:20).

Have you any doubts that Christ, in fulfilling the type of the High Priest under the Mosaic Law, had of necessity to offer for himself as well as for those whom he represented?

Paul says, “The heavenly things themselves,” (i.e. Christ who is the substance prefigured in the Law) had to be “purified,” “with better sacrifices than these,” (i.e. by the sacrifice of Himself). This was accomplished after Christ’s resurrection on the third day when he “ascended” to the Father (John 20:17) in his change of nature, “this corruptible must put on incorruption” (1Corinthians 15:52-54). This physical purification or removal of sin in the flesh was on the basis of the redemption accomplished by his sacrificial death (Hebrews 9:23; 7:27, 8:3 & 5:3).

This is the key issue that distinguishes the Truth from the apostasy of the churches on this vital subject of the nature and sacrifice of Christ. It is the heart of the problem with those who cannot clearly see the scriptural meaning of the sacrifice of Christ. Much of the problem lies in the denial of the second sense in which the word ‘sin’ is used in scripture. Those who deny this aspect say the phrase ‘sin in the flesh’ is merely a figure of speech, and refers to moral, not physical sin. If that was true, it begs the question, how could sin be put to death in the crucifixion of Christ if sin was not actually in Christ’s flesh, and not actually physically put to death? If he himself was unrelated to the sacrificial redemption, then sin was not actually and really put to death, and he never achieved the destruction of the diabolos, the purpose for which he came into the world. His crucifixion then did not manifest the justice and righteousness of God, but the very reverse – injustice and unrighteousness. Therefore the question must be answered in all good conscience: Did he offer as one of those needing the sacrifice as a representative; or did he offer merely on behalf of others, not needing it himself, i.e. as a substitute? Bro. Roberts states “The sacrifice of Christ could not be for us without being for himself inclusively. What was accomplished was accomplished in himself alone. We come on to the foundation he laid. It does not appear how the sacrifice of Christ for us could be scripturally understood without this being perceived. Away from this, the heathen notion of substitution is the only idea that remains” (The Christadelphian, April 1888). 


44. Was Christ a substitute (one who takes the place of others) who died instead of us as the churches teach?

No. God’s method of returning sinful man to favour was not by a substitutionary sacrifice, but required the putting to death of man’s condemned and evil nature in a representative man of spotless character, i.e. one who bore our condemned nature and therefore in as much need of redemption from sinful flesh as those he came to save.

That is very important to understand. Without exception, the doctrine that the churches preach on the subject of the nature and sacrifice of Christ, in one form or another, is a substitutionary atonement. That is Christ offered himself by taking the place of those he came to save, punished for the transgression of others, dying instead of them. Under this theory, Christ suffered the wrath of God by suffering their punishment, paying the penalty of their sin. The church doctrine is of a wrathful deity, whose justice can only be appeased by passing sentence upon one who had absolutely no relation to the sin condemned on the cross.

If by the word “sin” we were to accept what the churches teach that it refers only to transgression or moral guilt, then the only way in which we are to understand how God “condemned sin in the flesh” (Romans 8:3) was by Christ’s perfect life of obedience! But the united testimony of the scripture is that the reason why Christ came under the beneficial operation of his own death was that he might be saved, redeemed and purified from death by his own blood (Hebrews 13:20; 9:12, 23; 5:7). The removal of this defiled or contaminated nature was by his sacrificial death and resurrection. We can only gain the benefit of what God achieved in Christ by exercising faith in this divine means of redemption and by identification with it through baptism. If we do not believe in this divine method we cannot be saved (Mark 16:15-16; Galatians 1:6-8). To say sin in the flesh was condemned by Christ’s perfect obedience and deny the physical condemnation of “sin in the flesh” by Jesus’s crucifixion is to believe the false doctrine of substitution.

What lies at the foundation of the extreme Rome-ish doctrine of substitution apart from the obvious injustice that it conveys is a complete denial of the two senses in which scripture uses the word sin. This is enshrined in the doctrines that define the anti-Christ - that Christ had not come in sinful flesh, which is the touchstone of the doctrine of the Trinity. The other church doctrine, which this subject has an obvious essential application, is the subject of the devil destroyed in Christ’s death (Hebrews 2:14).

Bro. Roberts shows us, that if Christ died as a substitute for us, he should not have been raised from the dead, which he was. Therefore we should not have to die, which we most certainly do. Bro. Roberts also shows why the doctrine of ‘substitution’ “cannot be the right view, for this remarkable reason, that Christ himself is exhibited to us as coming under the beneficial operation of his own death” (The Blood of Christ section ‘Christ Himself Benefited By His Own Death’ 3 & 4, & 8 Logos ed). The reason why Christ came under the beneficial operation of his own death is stated in scripture that he might himself be saved, redeemed and purified from death by his own blood (Hebrews 13:20; 9:12 & 23 and 5:7). “He ‘obtained redemption’, but not till his own blood was shed” (Law of Moses pg. 173). “Christ himself was included in the sacrificial work… ‘for himself that it might be for us’” (Law of Moses pg. 177). “It was a necessity that he (Christ) should offer up himself, for the purging of his own nature” (Christadelphian 1873 pg. 468). “Christ required redemption from Adamic nature equally with his brethren; and the mode of redemption which God had ordained was a perfect obedience culminating in a sacrificial death” (Christadelphian 1895 pg. 262). Christ needed to be purified by his own death and resurrection. His sinful nature had to be removed by his own sacrifice. “Those who deny Christ’s participation thereof (i.e. sinful nature), deny its removal by sacrifice, and therefore deny the fundamental testimony of the gospel, that he is ‘the Lamb of God, taking away the sin of the world’. (Law of Moses pgs. 173 & 238). Bro. Roberts further shows how the doctrine of substitution “nullifies that other most important element of the Truth, that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God, and that he only is righteous who doeth righteousness. It draws a veil over the truth that we have to ‘work out our salvation’ by a ‘patient continuance in well-doing’ and that he only that endureth to the end shall be saved. It (the doctrine of substitution) undermines that most important testimony of the Gospel that Christ is the judge of who is fit to be saved, and that he will impartially give to every man according to his works” (The Blood of Christ, section ‘Effect on Character’ pg. 15 Logos ed).

For an explanation of the relationship between the false doctrine of substitution and the two senses in which the word ‘sin’ is used in scripture, see Appendix II ‘The False Doctrine of Substitution Explained and Refuted’, on page 166. 


45. What is Satan?

It simply means an adversary. Like the word devil, it is an untranslated word. It was originally Hebrew, and was adopted into the Greek and finally transferred to the English.

We in fact read the scriptures intelligently if we read adversary wherever we find ‘Satan’. When we do this we shall find it easy to avoid the popular misconception, which is nothing more than a pagan myth of an infernal fallen angel in opposition to God.

Can you have a good and bad Satan?

Yes. The Angel of Yahweh who stood in the way of Balaam’s ass is referred to as an adversary or Satan. Yahweh Himself is referred to as Satan or an adversary to Israel and caused David to number Israel. The saints in the ecclesia at Pergamos were said to dwell where, “Satan’s seat (or throne) is,” ―Pergamos being the central Roman power in Asia. This power is referred to as “the devil” in Revelation 2:10, which “cast” some of the saints “into prison.” “Sin in the flesh” as manifested in the authorities of the Roman State was the great adversary (or Satan) of the early believers. (Numbers 22:22; 1 Chronicles 21:1 compare 2 Samuel 24:1; Revelation 2:13)

Can you have a good and bad devil?

No. The devil or the personification of sin in the flesh is always set against God, whereas the word Satan can be good or bad depending on the scriptural context. Sin however, is the great Satan or adversary personified in scripture.

46. How then is man tempted?

“Every man is tempted when he is drawn away of his own lust and enticed.” (James 1:14-15). The Lord Jesus says, “For from within, out of the heart of man, come evil thoughts, sexual immorality, theft, murder, adultery…all these evil things come from within, and they defile a person” (Mark 7:21-23). We are tempted both from within as a result of the defiled nature we bear, as well as from without.

Was Jesus tempted?

He was tempted in all points like unto us yet without sin. (Heb. 4:15)

47. You have previously stated that sin was condemned in Christ who knew no sin and Jesus died that through death he might destroy him that hath the power of death, that is, the devil (Heb. 2:14). What is the devil?

The Bible devil is a scriptural personification of ‘sin in the flesh’. The devil is understood by its characteristics; it is that in the flesh, “which has the power of death,” and is called sin because the fixing of this evil in the flesh was the result of man’s original transgression. There is no such being as the personal, immortal devil of popular religious belief (Romans 8:3; Hebrews 2:14).

As you have stated there is no such being as the personal, immortal devil of popular religious belief. The belief in such a being is due to Greek Mythology and the misunderstanding of certain figures and symbols in the Bible. The Bible devil is a scriptural personification of ‘sin in the flesh.’ The word ‘devil’ is the Greek noun diabolos which Bro.Thomas says, “is the name of that which ‘crosses, or causes to cross, or falls over’ therefore to slander or falsely accuse. Diabolos is therefore a very fit and proper word by which to designate the law of sin and death, or Sin’s Flesh.” (Eureka Vol.1 pg. 249) and as a scriptural personification of sin, has slandered or falsely accused Yahweh’s law from the beginning, whose stronghold is the flesh, as a result of man believing the serpent’s lie. Note bro. Thomas does not say the devil is transgression of God’s law but rather what causes it, i.e. “Sin’s Flesh,” the physical “flesh and blood” nature of man. The Bible devil is manifested in many ways, individually and in the aggregate, in political and religious opposition, but all have their origin in the disobedience of flesh and blood to Divine Law. The Bible presents the ‘devil’ or ‘sin in the flesh’ as the source of all our problems and all the evil man commits as a result of this principle dwelling in us. The devil presents itself in our inner thoughts, and in those who would tempt us to do evil. The devil in its largest manifestation exists in the present religious and political constitution of things upon the earth. The Son of God was manifested expressly for the purpose of destroying the devil and his works, that is Sin in its two scriptural aspects, root and branch. (Romans 7:17-25 & 8:1-3; Hebrews 9:26; Romans 6:23; James 1:14-15 & 4:7; John 13:27 & 6:70; Acts 5:3-9; Ephesians 2:2; 1 Timothy 5:14-15 & 1:20; Matthew 16:23; Mark 8:33; Luke 4:8; 1 Thessalonians 2:18; Revelation 2:12-13; 1 Peter 5:8; Revelation 2:10; Romans 16:20; Revelation 12:3 & 17, 17:9 & 12, 20:2; Hebrews 2:14; 1 John 3:8).

48. What opened the way that on the third day for God to righteously raise Jesus from the dead and exalt him as High Priest and mediator between God and man?

Jesus under severe trial never sinned requiring forgiveness. It was this that opened the way for his resurrection. Had he been a sinner as all other men and women, death would have held the power over him that it had over them. God raised him from the dead after he destroyed the devil or that which has the power of death which Paul says is “sin, the sting of death” (1Corinthians 15:56) and being raised from the dead, “death hath no more dominion over him.” “He ever liveth to make intercession for us, and is able to save to the uttermost all those who come unto God by him.”

That is very true, and in this way he has become the righteousness of God to all who would be saved by the belief and obedience of the truth. (1 Corinthians 15:4-23; Hebrews 7:26 & 4:15; John 8:46; Matthew 3:17; Acts 10:40-43; 1 John 3:5; Acts 2:24-27 & 4:10-12 & 27); (Statement of the Faith No.13 on page 127).

49. What is a mediator? Does he mediate for everyone?

A mediator is one who goes between. There is one mediator between God and man the man Christ Jesus. He is the mediator of the new covenant and is a priest over his own household only. He does not intercede for the world or for those who though they may claim to be God’s servants, have abandoned themselves to disobedience.

The scriptures tell us that Christ makes intercession for his erring brethren if they confess and forsake their sins. (1 Timothy 2:5; Hebrews 8:1-6 & 12:24; Luke 24:51; Ephesians 1:20; Acts 5:31, 15:4 & 13:39; Hebrews 4:14-15; John 17:9; Hebrews 10:26; 1 John 2:1; Proverbs 28:13)(Statement of the Faith No.14, pg. 127)

On the question of whether God hears the prayers of the unbaptised, refer to Appendix I ‘Does God hear the prayers of the unbaptised?’, pg. 165. We should note that even Cornelius (a devout man, who feared God with all his household and prayed continually) who clearly was a proselyte to the Jewish religion and therefore understood “the Hope of Israel” and desired to approach God in an acceptable way, still had to be guided in the way of truth with respect to the Atonement that he and his household might understand the gospel in full and then be baptized. 


 We know the Lord sent forth his apostles to proclaim salvation through him as the only name given under heaven whereby men may be saved. (Statement of the Faith No.15, pg. 127) You have said that the way to obtain this salvation is to believe the Gospel the apostles preached and to take on the name and service of Christ by being baptized. Christ gave the command to be baptized, and we may not ignore the commandments of Christ and be blameless. The Apostle John recorded this of Jesus: “Verily, verily, I say unto thee, except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” (John 3:5) Jesus explains here that baptism is not an option. A man cannot enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water, in his baptism, and of the spirit, after his resurrection to life.

What do we have to do then if we are to be found worthy at Christ’s return?

We must continue patiently in the observance of all things the Lord has commanded. (Romans 2:7; Matthew 28:20)

We must recognize that while faith turns a sinner into a saint, obedience only will secure a saint’s acceptance at the judgment seat of Christ. Disobedient saints will be rejected more decisively than the unjustified sinner. The rule of life must be obedience to the commandments of Christ. (Bro. Roberts’ Bible Reading Companion)

After the obedience of baptism, what other commandments has Christ delivered for our observance?

He has commanded us to assemble ourselves together every first day of the week to break bread and drink wine in remembrance of him. (Luke 22:17-20; 1 Corinthians 11:23-25; Acts 20:7; Hebrews 10:25)

The bread and wine are the ritual symbols of the death of Christ. We partake of them and thereby identify ourselves with what God accomplished by the Lord Jesus’ sacrificial death, in the declaration of God’s righteousness by the condemnation of sin in the flesh. By our participation we show forth that we truly appreciate God’s love in the giving of His Son and desire to be transformed into the image of him who loved us and gave himself for us; that by His grace, through faith, hope to receive God’s gift of forgiveness through Jesus Christ our redeemer.

50. The doctrine of the churches denies the principle of obedience as the basis of our acceptance with God in Christ by its preaching of humanism and human rights. What are some of the other commandments of Christ we must obey to be accepted at the judgment seat?

We must “love the Lord our God with all our heart, with all our soul and with our entire mind,” and “love our neighbour as ourselves.” We are therefore, to love our enemies, to bless those who curse us, do good to those who hate us, and pray for those who badly use us. We are to be ready to do every good work, to give to those who ask, to relieve the afflicted i.e. to follow after whatsoever things are true, honest, pure, just, lovely and of good report. (Matthew 22:37; Luke 6:27-28; Matthew 5:44 & 42; Philippians 4:8)

What are some things we are not to do?

We are commanded not to return evil for evil, not to avenge ourselves but rather give place to wrath and suffer ourselves to be defrauded. We are not to labour to be rich or to love the world. We are not to grudge, complain, criticize, speak evil of or condemn our brethren and sisters. We are not to give way to anger, wrath, bitterness or evil speaking. We are not to talk spitefully or speak of others’ sins until we have spoken to them ourselves first. We are not to be guilty of adultery, fornication, uncleanness, drunkenness, covetousness, wrath, strife, sedition, hatred, rivalry, boasting, vainglory, envy, jesting or foolish talking (Romans 12:17-20; 1 Timothy 6:8; 1 Peter 3:9; James 4:11; Matthew 7:1; Ephesians 4:31; Matthew 18:15; James 5:19-20; Ephesians 5:3-4).

51. Will belief in the Gospel save us if we are disobedient to Christ’s commands?

No. Our belief of the Gospel and baptism will only be to our condemnation if we live in disobedience to the commandments of Christ. Only those who do his commandments will at last be among the blessed. Christ said, “Ye are my friends if you do whatsoever I have commanded you.” (Revelation 22:14; Matthew 7:26; 2 Peter 2:21; John 15:14 & 14:15; Statement of the Faith No.16 pg. 127).

Will you try to be obedient?


52. Is there forgiveness for those who having submitted to the Gospel, may fail in rendering a perfect obedience to the commandments of Christ?

Yes. If there were not, no flesh could be saved. Forgiveness is conditional upon our confessing and forsaking our sins and our ability to forgive others. However, forgiveness is only granted at the intercession of Christ. If we are unforgiving, or if he refuses to intercede, there is no hope for us. (Psalm 130:3-4; 1 John 1:7-9 & 2:1; Hebrews 7:25; Romans 8:34; Matthew 6:15; John 17:9).

The true religion of God is a system of Faith and Practice. Bro. Thomas asks “…where is obedience to the gospel of the kingdom in the name of Jesus? Whoever thinks of obeying this? And yet He comes to take vengeance on all who obey it not (2 Thess. 1:8). I cannot too earnestly commend the words of Samuel to the attention of the reader in this place. ‘Hath the Lord,’ saith he, ‘as great delight in burnt-offerings and sacrifices, as in obeying the voice of the Lord? Behold to obey is better than sacrifice, and to hearken than the fat of rams. For rebellion is as the sin of witchcraft, and stubbornness is as iniquity and idolatry’ (1 Sam. 15:22, 23). A great principle is set forth in these words. It is that which can alone place men in harmony with the religion of God. Without it a man may in deed know the truth, but he must believe and do if he would inherit the kingdom which has been preparing from the foundation of the world…All the Most High requires of men is just to believe what He has done, what He teaches, and what He promises; to obey the law of faith; to take care of the poor of His flock; and to keep themselves unspotted from the world. This is pure and undefiled religion (James 1:27). But, alas! Where is it to be found?” (Elpis Israel Chapter 5 “The way to the tree of life” pg. 167-168).